Can someone check this out and tell me if I'm reading/understanding this wrong. Sorry it is 2am.

http://www.dermabolics.com

Under the 4Derm info. read the description. I'm concerned with the quote..."This topical matrix contains the androgen 4-Androstenediol, a substance that converts directly into Testosterone and is 95% as anabolic as its target hormone."

Ok the target hormone is testosterone, I get that part, now, are they saying that 4-Androstenediol itself (unconverted) is 95% as anabolic as test??? Or am I right out of it? If this is the case why would companies hammer on about the fact that 4-AD has a something like 16% conversion rate to test when they have a substance that (they say in this case) is 95% as anabolic as test, people would just buy if for that fact and the 16% converstion to test would just be a bonus?

I'm probably just not understanding pro-hormones enough yet.

Thanks in advance for any explanations on this...